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Pass Guaranteed Quiz 2025 High Pass-Rate 8020: Test ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Study Guide
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q51-Q56):
NEW QUESTION # 51
How should Near Misses and Opportunity Costs be treated within Operational Risk?
- A. Reported, Recorded and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
- B. Ignored.
- C. Reported. Recorded and Analyzed. Not Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
- D. Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Near Misses in Operational Risk
A near miss is an event that could have led to a loss but was avoided or mitigated before actual financial impact occurred.
PRMIA emphasizes that near misses should be reported, recorded, and analyzed because they provide valuable insights into potential vulnerabilities in risk controls.
However, since they did not result in actual financial losses, they are not included in the calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Opportunity Costs in Operational Risk
Opportunity costs refer to the loss of potential gains due to missed strategic opportunities.
These are not directly quantifiable as operational risk losses and are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations.
PRMIA's Operational Risk Framework states that operational risk is about actual losses rather than theoretical costs.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Ignored.
Incorrect - Near misses and opportunity costs provide valuable insights into operational risk, so they should never be ignored.
B . Recorded and Analyzed. Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - While they should be recorded and analyzed, they are not included in Operational Risk Capital calculations because they do not result in actual losses.
D . Reported, Recorded, and Analyzed, Used in calculation of Operational Risk Capital.
Incorrect - Reporting, recording, and analysis are correct, but they should not be included in capital calculations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Operational Risk Management Standards - Defines near misses and opportunity costs.
Basel II & III Operational Risk Framework - Outlines the principles of operational risk capital calculations.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following is a correct statement about control rating scales?
- A. A control rating scale should consider neither control effectiveness or control performance.
- B. They are enhanced by the use of software that includes inherent risk.
- C. A control rating scale should consider control effectiveness but not control performance.
- D. A control rating scale should consider both control effectiveness and control performance.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Definition of Control Rating Scales
Control rating scales measure the effectiveness and performance of risk management controls.
They help organizations evaluate control strength and identify weaknesses.
Key Components
Control effectiveness → Measures how well the control mitigates risks.
Control performance → Assesses whether the control operates as designed in practice.
Why Answer C is Correct
Both effectiveness and performance are crucial for assessing control reliability.
A control may be designed effectively but fail in execution, making both factors essential.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . They are enhanced by the use of software that includes inherent risk.
Incorrect - Software can improve ratings, but control scales are based on evaluation criteria, not just software tools.
B . A control rating scale should consider control effectiveness but not control performance.
Incorrect - Ignoring performance could lead to misjudging actual control reliability.
D . A control rating scale should consider neither control effectiveness nor control performance.
Incorrect - This would render the control rating scale useless.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance and Control Framework
Basel Operational Risk Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 53
ISO 27000 relates to what topic / area?
- A. Auditing of financial controls.
- B. Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) investing.
- C. International Risk Management.
- D. Information Security Systems.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: Definition of ISO 27000
ISO 27000 is a global standard for information security management systems (ISMS), issued by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
It provides a framework for protecting sensitive information through policies, controls, and risk management practices.
Step 2: Why Option B Is Correct
ISO 27001 (part of ISO 27000 series) is one of the most widely recognized certifications for information security governance.
It sets guidelines on risk assessment, incident response, and data protection.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("ESG investing")
Incorrect because ISO 27000 deals with cybersecurity, not environmental, social, and governance (ESG) issues.
Option C ("International Risk Management")
Incorrect because ISO 27000 focuses on information security, not general risk management.
Option D ("Auditing of financial controls")
Incorrect because financial auditing standards (e.g., SOX, COSO) are separate from information security standards.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
ISO 27000 Series Documentation - Defines cybersecurity risk management practices.
PRMIA IT Risk Governance Framework - Reference ISO 27001 as a cybersecurity standard.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Ideally, which of the following should be completed as part of the risk assessments of service providers?
- A. An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
- B. An assessment of a third party should include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy and operating history.
- C. Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
- D. A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)
PRMIA highlights the importance of conducting thorough due diligence on third-party vendors and service providers.
This includes evaluating compliance programs, risk management frameworks, financial stability, strategic objectives, and operational history.
Key Areas of Third-Party Risk Assessment
Compliance and Risk Infrastructure → Ensures that the provider meets regulatory and security requirements.
Financial Health → Determines whether the provider has the financial stability to support long-term service delivery.
Business Strategy → Helps assess alignment with the organization's risk appetite and goals.
Operating History → Evaluates experience and reliability in delivering services.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
B . An assessment of a third party should not include its compliance and risk infrastructure, financials, business strategy, and operating history.
Incorrect - Ignoring these critical factors increases the risk of working with an unreliable vendor.
C . Onsite visits are not advantageous for understanding the third party's risks and control environment.
Incorrect - Onsite visits are highly valuable as they provide first-hand insights into operational controls. PRMIA encourages risk managers to conduct site visits.
D . A review of the pay levels of the staff supporting the service.
Incorrect - Employee salaries are not a primary risk factor in vendor assessments. The focus should be on the vendor's security, compliance, and operational risks.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) Guidelines - Details best practices for vendor risk assessments.
Basel Principles on Outsourcing and Third-Party Risk - Provides regulatory guidance on evaluating third-party service providers.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Stafford Beers Viable System Model (VSM) has several implementation elements. Which of the following is not one of these?
- A. Governance
- B. Process
- C. Input
- D. Output
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model (VSM)
VSM is a cybernetic model designed to analyze and improve organizational structures.
It consists of five core subsystems that define governance and operations.
Why Answer B is Correct
The VSM does not explicitly include "Input" as a key component.
The key elements of VSM include Governance, Process, and Output, but it does not define "Input" as a standalone concept.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Governance
Correct - Governance is part of VSM and deals with decision-making and oversight.
C . Process
Correct - Process represents the operational functions within VSM.
D . Output
Correct - Output refers to the results of the system's operations.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Governance and Cybernetic Systems Guidelines
Stafford Beer's Viable System Model Framework
NEW QUESTION # 56
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